1. The action of the following may be prolonged in patients with abnormal plasma cholinesterase:
a) prilocaine
b) atracurium
c) procaine
d) amethocaine
e) bupivacaine
2. Glyceryl trinitrate:
a) increases pulmonary artery pressure
b) increases central venous pressure
c) produces bronchoconstriction
d) increases intracranial pressure
e) decreases cardiac preload
3. Sulphonylureas:
a) displace bound insulin from pancreatic islet 13 cells
b) exert a hypoglycaemic effect which is antagonised by thiazides
c) correct ketosis
d) are extensively bound to proteins
e) include metoclopramide as an example
4. All anaesthetic ethers:
a) are inflammable
b) are not metabolised in the body
c) contain a halogen
d) contain oxygen
e) are likely to cause arrhythmias
5. Regarding a patient with severe burns:
a) dangerous rises is serum potassium may occur
b) a catabolic state exists for several days
c) an arm represents 9% of the body surface area
d) half of the fluid replacement should be given as blood
e) hyperglycaemia requiring insulin may occur
6. Faulty positioning on the operating table may damage the following nerves:
a) trigeminal
b) radial
c) ulnar
d) lateral popliteal
e) obturator
7. The following are recognised complications of transurethral resection of the prostate:
a) haemolysis
b) congestive cardiac failure
c) convulsions
d) hyponatraemia
e) hyperkalaemia
8. Concerning postoperative myocardial infarction:
a) it is often silent
b) it has a lower mortality than in non-surgical patients
c) postponement of elective surgery should take place if a myocardial infarct has occurred within the last 2 years
d) it is associated with large intraoperative changes in blood pressure
e) it occurs most commonly within 24 hours of surgery
9. The following are of use in the immediate management of an anaphylactic reaction to thiopentone:
a) intravenous fluids
b) 100% oxygen
c) adrenaline 0.2-0.6 mg intravenously
d) hydrocortisone 100 mg intravenously
e) chlorpheniramine 10 mg intramuscularly
10. Regarding the innervation of the larynx:
a) the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the only abductors of the cords
b) the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory innervation to the whole larynx
c) the lingual surface of the epiglottis is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve
d) the internal laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve
e) damage to one recurrent laryngeal nerve leads to life-threatening stridor
11. The following increase the rate of inhalational induction of anaesthesia:
a) hyperventilation
b) hypotension
c) the second gas effect
d) an increase in dead-space
e) a high Hb concentration
12. The following are features of Cushing’s syndrome:
a) hypokalaemia
b) osteoporosis
c) hypertension
d) peptic ulceration
e) muscle weakness
13. Dysphoria may occur with:
a) pentazocine
b) droperidol
c) naloxone
d) ketamine
e) lorazepam
14. The duration of non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agents may be prolonged by:
a) acidosis
b) preoperative treatment with ecothiopate
c) hypothermia
d) hypercarbia
e) hypokalaemia
15. Angina is a recognised feature of:
a) aortic stenosis
b) myxoedema
c) polyarteritis nodosa
d) anaemia
e) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
16. Severe V/Q abnormalities are associated with:
a) a small decrease in tidal volume
b) a rise in the (A-a) O2 difference
c) a major pulmonary embolus
d) a shift in the Hb-oxygen dissociation curve
e) an increase in the alveolar dead-space
17. The following have blood:gas partition coefficients of < 2:
a) halothane
b) isoflurane
c) cyclopropane
d) trichlorethylene
e) nitrous oxide
18. The management of life-threatening hyperkalaemia may include:
a) sodium bicarbonate intravenously
b) resonium orally
c) calcium intravenously
d) corticosteroids intravenously
e) dextrose and insulin intravenously
19. Suxamethonium is contraindicated:
a) during the first 24 hours following major burns
b) in day-case anaesthesia
c) in patients with dystrophia myotonica
d) in patients with suspected epiglottitis
e) in the presence of autonomic neuropathy
20. Prolonged vomiting over a 7-month period may lead to:
a) vitamin B12 deficiency
b) uraemia
c) hypokalaemia
d) hypochloraemia
e) tetany
21. Regarding chlorpropamide:
a) it is a biguanide
b) its half-life is greater than 24 hours
c) it is used in type 1 diabetes
d) it prolongs the effects of warfarin
e) agranulocytosis is a complication of its use
22. The following blood transfusions will result in agglutination:
Donor Recipient
a) O AB
b) B O
c) AB B
d) O A
e) B AB
23. The following are safe in malignant hyperthermia:
a) suxamethonium
b) halothane
c) nitrous oxide
d) thiopentone
e) pancuronium
24. Propranolol may cause:
a) congestive cardiac failure
b) bronchospasm
c) hyperglycaemia
d) tachycardia
e) retinal detachment
25. Morphine:
a) stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone
b) is more lipid soluble than pethidine
c) is a constituent of papaveretum
d) causes significant depression of cardiac output
e) may cause histamine release
26. Isoprenaline:
a) acts at beta 1 adrenoreceptors
b) increases total peripheral vascular resistance
c) is excreted unchanged in the urine
d) produces bronchodilatation
e) increases systemic blood pressure
27. The critical temperature is:
a) 273 K
b) the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquified by pressure alone
c) the temperature below which a gas does not vaporise
d) 36.5 degrees C for nitrous oxide
e) different if a substance is in a mixture rather than on its own
28. Norepinephrine reduces heart rate by:
a) the baroreceptor reflex
b) coronary artery vasoconstriction
c) effects on beta receptors
d) increased cardiac output
e) ganglion blockade
29. A mixture of helium and oxygen compared with air:
a) is less dense
b) is more flammable
c) is beneficial in asthma
d) has an increased blood solubility coefficient
e) is used to improve turbulent flow
30. Suxamethonium:
a) is metabolised in the blood
b) is contraindicated in malignant hyperthermia
c) is antagonised by neostigmine
d) may cause hypokalaemia
e) causes a transient rise in arterial blood pressure
31. There is 100 mg of lidocaine in:
a) 100 ml of 1% solution
b) 1 ml of 10% solution
c) 50 ml of 2% solution
d) 20 ml of 5% solution
e) 20 ml of 0 5% solution
32. Angiotensin II:
a) is produced in the lungs
b) production is stimulated by renin
c) production is stimulated by an increase in extracellular volume
d) produces peripheral vasoconstriction
e) is a mineralocorticoid
33. Psychogenic hyperventilation in a normal person causes:
a) a fall in the PaCO2
b) a rise in ionised plasma calcium
c) a hydrogen ion concentration of 40 nmol/L
d) a rise in the PaCO2
e) a rise in the ~AO2
34. Functional residual capacity:
a) is measured by helium dilution
b) is decreased in restrictive lung disease
c) is decreased with an increase in airways resistance
d) is approximately 1200 ml in a healthy adult
e) is the volume at which closure of small airways occurs
35. Blood group antigens:
a) are on the outside of the haemoglobin
b) have an autosomal inheritance pattern
c) are present in group O patients
d) are detectable in infants of less than 3-6 months of age
e) may be detected in saliva
36. The following cause delayed gastric emptying:
a) trauma
b) anxiety
c) morphine
d) metoclopramide
e) ranitidine
37. The following changes in liver physiology occur during normal pregnancy:
a) increased globulin
b) decreased albumin
c) decreased cholesterol
d) increased transaminase
e) increased alkaline phosphatase
38. Features of cor pulmonale secondary to longstanding emphysema include:
a) anaemia
b) an increased area of cardiac dullness
c) mental confusion
d) cold extremities
e) a large "a" wave in the jugular venous pressure waveform
39. Acute renal failure may be precipitated by:
a) gentamicin
b) overtransfusion
c) endotoxin
d) preoperative respiratory tract infection
e) obstructive jaundice
40. An increase in temperature increases:
a) the vaporisation rate of volatile liquids
b) blood viscosity
c) the volume of a gas at constant pressure
d) the solubility of a gas in a liquid
e) the resistance of a thermocouple
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ArticleDate:20040623
SiteSection: Article
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