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You are in Home >> Exams >> Final FRCA >> Final FRCA SAQ/MCQ


Created: 29/6/2004
Updated: 24/2/2009

1. Ritrodrine can cause:

a) bradycardia
b) heart block
c) Left ventricular failure
d) hypotension
e) peripheral vasoconstriction

2. Trigeminal ganglion block causes ipsilateral analgesia of:

a) lower lip
b) inside the nose
c) angle of the jaw
d) external auditory meatus
e) soft palate

3. A pressure cycled ventilator:

a) is a minute volume divider
b) is cycled from inspiration to expiration after a set time
c) is cycled from expiration to inspiration after a set time
d) has end expiratory pressure determined by the patient’s compliance
e) ventilates a patient with obstructive airways disease more efficiently if operated at low flows

4. Airways resistance:

a) is greater during inspiration than expiration
b) can be measured by whole body plethysmography
c) is increased by ephedrine
d) is one factor determining the work of breathing
e) is expressed in kPa/L/s

5. Regarding Mapleson’s breathing systems:

a) ‘D’ is identical to Magill
b) some degree of rebreathing can occur with all systems
c) ‘A’ requires the same for spontaneous ventilation and IPPV
d) ‘F’ system is used in paediatrics
e) ‘E’ system is the most efficient for spontaneous ventilation

6. Recognised effects of positive end-expiratory pressure include:

a) sodium retention
b) fall in cardiac output
c) rise in closing volume
d) rise in functional residual capacity
e) fall in central venous pressure

7. An elderly man given atropine becomes excited and confused; appropriate treatment includes:

a) morphine
b) physostigmine
c) intubation and ventilation
d) droperidol
e) chlorpromazine

8. Causes of increased bleeding during head and neck surgery include:

a) hypoxia
b) hypocarbia
c) respiratory obstruction
d) chronic aspirin ingestion
e) transfusion of excessive quantities of stored blood

9. In cardioversion for dysrhythmias:

a) the shock is given on the upstroke of the T wave
b) general anaesthesia is always required for synchronised cardioversion
c) AC is safer than DC current
d) no preoperative assessment is needed for elective cases
e) ventricular fibrillation may result

10. Hyperventilation throughout general anaesthesia results in:

a) increased anaesthetic requirements
b) shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to the right
c) increased arterial to venous pO2 difference
d) reduced renal blood flow
e) hyperkalaemia

11. In patients with haemorrhagic shock:

a) physiological dead space is increased
b) renal blood flow is decreased
c) antidiuretic hormone secretion is increased
d) the oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left
e) O2 delivery is decreased

12. Regarding dental anaesthesia:

a) oral debris inhalation is unlikely if the patient is supine
b) intermittent methohexitone is a satisfactory technique for the operator anaesthetist
c) the number of dental general anaesthetics given is steadily increasing
d) demand flow anaesthetic systems result in economy of gases
e) simple monitoring is not essential

13. The right lung has:

a) one fissure
b) no Sibson’s fascia
c) direct relationship to the azygos vein
d) two pulmonary veins
e) seven broncho-pulmonary segments

14. Six hours after thoracotomy for oesophageal resection:

a) vital capacity is reduced
b) functional residual capacity is reduced
c) peak flow is reduced
d) venous admixture is reduced
e) pO2 on air is reduced

15. Cardioplegia:

a) contains a high concentration of calcium ions
b) contains a high concentration of potassium ions
c) contains local anaesthetic
d) stops the heart in diastole
e) is given at 8 degrees C

16. The critical temperature of a gas is that:

a) at which the pressure is the critical pressure
b) at which freezing takes place
c) at which attraction between gas molecules is negligible
d) above which the gas cannot be ignited
e) at which Boyle’s law is perfectly obeyed
f) above which it cannot be liquefied

17. Central venous pressure is raised and cardiac output is reduced in the following:

a) Addison’s disease
b) pulmonary embolism
c) air embolism
d) tension pneumothorax
e) pre-eclampsia

18. Hyaline membrane disease:

a) usually occurs within 12 hours of delivery
b) usually occurs after Caeserean section
c) has a better prognosis if steroids are given to the infant
d) is uncommon after 36 weeks' gestation
e) is more common in multiple pregnancies

19. Raised left ventricular end-diastolic pressure implies:

a) increased left ventricular compliance
b) decreased left ventricular left ventricular stroke work index
c) decreased oxygen flux
d) decreased myocardial oxygen demand
e) decreased myocardial oxygen supply

20. Internal carotid artery disease can cause:

a) transient loss of vision
b) tunnel vision
c) paraesthesiae on the side of the face
d) dysphagia
e) Parkinsons’s disease

21. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is a reliable parameter:

a) in mitral stenosis
b) after anterior myocardial infarction
c) in pulmonary stenosis
d) in aortic stenosis
e) in pulmonary fibrosis

22. Vitamin B12 is appropriate treatment in:

a) vegans
b) pregnancy
c) Crohn’s disease
d) partial gastrectomy
e) microcytic anaemia

23. The following are intimately related to the neck of a femoral hernia:

a) pubic tubercle
b) inguinal ligament
c) inferior epigastric artery
d) femoral vein
e) femoral artery

24. The following result from ulnar nerve block at the wrist:

a) weakness of adductor pollicis
b) paraesthesiae in the palmar aspect of the little finger
c) paraethesiae in the dorsal aspect of the little finger
d) vasodilatation in the nerve distribution
e) analgesia of C8 dermatome

25. The celiac plexus is related:

a) anteriorly to the crura of the diaphragm
b) anteriorly to the inferior vena cava
c) anteriorly to the aorta
d) to the L3 vertebra
e) posteriorly to the pancreas

26. In cases of gastrointestinal bleeding:

a) blood volume falls by 30% before a fall in blood pressure is observed
b) there is a higher incidence in males than females
c) the cause is more likely to be a duodenal than a gastric ulcer
d) tachycardia may present before overt blood loss
e) surgery must take place before resuscitation

27. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy:
a) may be associated with osteoporosis
b) may be associated with an increase in skin temperature
c) often presents with pain as the presenting complaint
d) is associated with vasomotor disturbances
e) is more common in athletes

28. For amputation at mid-thigh, the following nerves must be blocked:

a) obturator
b) femoral
c) sciatic
d) genitofemoral
e) lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

29. The after-coming twin becomes “stuck” following the administration of ergometrine. The following drugs will reliably relax the uterus:

a) thiopentone
b) suxamethonium
c) ritodrine
d) salbutamol
e) halothane

30. Raised creatinine phosphokinase:

a) occurs after the administration of suxamethonium
b) implies a recent myocardial infarction
c) may reflect an increased risk of malignant hyperpyrexia
d) is an indication of alcoholic liver disease
e) is seen in acute pancreatitis

31. The following drugs may be safely used in porphyria:

a) barbiturates
b) bupivacaine
c) lidocaine
d) chlorpromazine
e) sulphonamides

32. An aortic aneurysm can be said to be leaking if there is:

a) loin pain
b) back pain
c) anuria
d) obstructed bowel sounds
e) no femoral pulse
f) absent bowel sounds

33. In septic shock:

a) peripheral hypothermia is associated with good prognosis
b) the patients usually have an increased cardiac output
c) the patients usually have a depleted circulating volume
d) the causative organisms are always Gram negative
e) antibiotics should not be given before blood culture results are available

34. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with:

a) pericarditis
b) aortic stenosis
c) tricuspid incompetence
d) aortic aneurysm

35. After head injury, increased intracranial pressure is indicated by:

a) fall in blood pressure
b) reduction in the Glasgow coma score
c) increase in heart rate
d) increase in pCO2
e) small pupils

36. In haemophilia:

a) the mode of inheritance is X-linked
b) the thromboplastin generation test may be abnormal despite a normal bleeding time
c) factor VIII and IX clotting factor concentrates form an important treatment modality
d) haematomas are treated by aspiration
e) disseminated intravascular coagulation  is a common complication following surgery

37. In the diagnosis of brain death:

a) lack of EEG activity is essential
b) caloric tests must be performed bilaterally
c) the admitting consultant must certify death
d) lack of stretch reflexes in all limbs is essential
e) the pupils must be fixed and dilated

38. Acute frontal sinusitis may cause:

a) subdural abscess
b) cerebral abscess
c) spreading osteomyelitis
d) orbital cellulitis
e) meningitis

39. In the ECG:

a) T wave indicates repolarisation
b) the transmembrane potential is the ratio of K+ in to K+ out
c) a single V lead requires one connection only
d) QRS width is proportional to muscle mass
e) negative deflection indicates movement away from the electrode

40. Diazoxide in pre-eclampsia:

a) reduces the diastolic blood pressure
b) relaxes the uterus
c) prevents hypoglycaemia
d) promotes diuresis
e) causes sedation

41. Vomiting is affected by:

a) age
b) weight
c) the choice of premedicant
d) intraoperative hypotension
e) the duration of anaesthesia

42. Dysphagia may be associated with:

a) cervical rib
b) pharyngeal pouch
c) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
d) achalasia
e) carcinoma of the bronchus

43. Carcinoma of the bronchus may be associated with:

a) pink palms
b) thirst
c) Horner’s syndrome
d) dysphagia
e) cerebellar ataxia

44. An 8-year-old child is rescued 20 minutes after drowning and has a core temperature of 30 degrees C and fixed dilated pupils. Further appropriate treatment includes:

a) phenobarbitone
b) rapid rewarming
c) hypoventilation
d) steroids
e) cardiopulmonary resuscitation

45. The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies:

a) sensation below the cords
b) the intrinsic muscles of the pharynx
c) the cricothyroid muscle
d) the inferior constrictor muscle
e) the epiglottis


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