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You are in Home >> Exams >> Final FRCA >> Final FRCA SAQ/MCQ


Created: 29/6/2004
Updated: 24/2/2009
1. Mitral stenosis is associated with:

a) subacute bacterial endocarditis
b) rheumatic fever
c) pulmonary hypertension
d) systolic murmur at the apex

2. Parathyroid adenoma may present with:

a) psychiatric disturbance
b) increased serum calcium
c) decreased urinary calcium
d) abdominal pain
e) renal stones

3. Patients with malignant hypertension may have:

a) increased risk of pulmonary oedema
b) decreased creatinine clearance
c) proteinuria
d) right bundle branch block
e) pulmonary hypertension

4. In the following conditions, dyspnoea is mainly due to decreased compliance:

a) extensive pulmonary consolidation
b) left ventricular failure
c) massive pulmonary embolus
d) emphysema

5. An increased A-a 02 difference is caused by:

a) decreased functional reserve capacity
b) increased inspired 02
c) N20 absorption
d) hepatic failure
e) Increased V/Q mismatch

6. There is no heart rate response to a Valsalva manoeuvre in:

a) aortic incompetence
b) patients on beta blockers
c) autonomic neuropathy
d) Horner's syndrome
e) increased V/Q mismatch

7. Acute pulmonary oedema can occur with:

a) aortic stenosis
b) tricuspid incompetence
c) myocardial infarction
d) left atrial myxoma
e) massive pulmonary embolus

8. Tension pneumothorax is associated with:

a) mediastinal displacement away from the lesion
b) decreased percussion note on the side of the lesion
c) increased blood pressure
d) stridor
e) cyanosis

9. Atracurium:

a) may cause profound bradycardia
b) activity varies with pH
c) commonly causes histamine release when used in clinical doses
d) causes vagal blockade
e) must not be used in liver failure

10. The laryngeal mask airway:

a) ensures an unobstructed airway
b) is safe to use in patients with a full stomach
c) can be used with positive pressure ventilation
d) can be inserted easily after induction with thiopentone
e) is not associated with laryngospasm

11. Vaporisers-inside-circuit:

a) are efficient
b) are temperature compensated
c) must be placed in the inspiratory limb of the circle
d) have a small volume
e) have a low resistance

12. In a pregnant woman at term:

a) tidal volume is increased
b) functional residual capacity is increased
c) physiological dead space is decreased
d) total vital capacity is reduced
e) airway resistance is reduced.

13. In labour:

a) entonox decreases placental blood flow
b) bupivacaine crosses the placenta freely
c) prilocaine causes methaemoglobinaemia in the foetus
d) epidural analgesia increases delay in second stage

14. The obstetrician calls you for a stuck second twin diagnosed following administration of ergometrine. The following drugs are capable of relaxing the uterus:

a) halothane
b) thiopentone
c) suxamethonium
d) salbutamol
e) ritodrine

15. Suxamethonium significantly increases serum potassium concentrations in:

a) quadriplegia
b) myasthenic syndrome
c) malignant hyperpyrexia syndrome
d) adrenocortical insufficiency
e) tetanus

16. Regarding the Bain circuit:

a) inspiratory gas passes through the outer tube
b) it can be used in small children
c) when the inner tube is disconnected, a large increase in dead space is inevitable

17. Diazoxide is used in the treatment of pre-eclampsia because:

a) it causes a diuresis
b) given intravenously it cause hypotension
c) it prevents hypoglycaemia
d) it increases uterine contractility
e) it provides useful sedation

18. Concerning the epidural space:

a) it commences at the foramen magnum
b) it is triangular in shape
c) in the lumbar region, it is widest posteriorly
d) no more than 20 ml of 0.5% bupivacaine should be used for a caesarean section
e) for a caesarean section, the block should extend from T11 to S1

19. Complications of stellate ganglion block include:

a) pneumothorax
b) dural puncture
c) injection into the vertebral artery
d) damage to the phrenic nerve
e) damage to the vagus nerve

20. Renal failure is associated with:

a) normochromic normocytic anaemia
b) acidosis
c) hypernatraemia

21. The caudal space:

a) allows entry into the epidural space
b) contains the spinal cord
c) is covered by the sacrococcygeal membrane

22. Concerning automatic blood pressure devices:

a) they over-read at high systolic blood pressure
b) they over-read at low systolic blood pressure
c) they can cause ulnar nerve damage
d) they are affected by arrhythmias
e) the width of the cuff should be half the circumference of the arm
f) they can cause ulnar nerve palsy

23. Concerning the Severinghaus electrode:

a) sodium bicarbonate is the electrolyte solution
b) it contains CO2 sensitive glass
c) it is affected by temperature
d) it is affected by nitrous oxide
e) it is more accurate with blood than with gases

24. Helium:

a) is less viscous than oxygen
b) alters the voice
c) can be used in the treatment of bronchospasm
d) supports combustion
e) is a liquid stored in brown cylinders

25. Recognised causes of urinary retention include:

a) ketamine
b) morphine
c) amitryptyline
d) ephedrine
e) frusemide

26. Regarding pulmonary artery catheters in a normal person:

a) the wedge pressure is about 12 mmHg
b) the pulmonary artery pressure is about 20/5 mmHg
c) the central venous pressure is about 5 cm H2O
d) the right ventricular pressure is about 30/0 mmHg
e) the internal jugular to wedged distance is about 70 cm

27. Regarding brain stem death:

a) a diagnosis can be made during a convulsion
b) criteria cannot be met in the presence of spinal reflexes
c) an EEG is required for the diagnosis
d) glucose has to be normal

28. Typical total parenteral nutrition requirements for a 70 kg man include:

a) 14 g of nitrogen
b) glucose
c) magnesium
d) 1 ml of water for 1 kcal of energy
e) no intralipid in hepatic failure

29. Regarding intermittent mandatory ventilation:

a) it must have a mandatory breath rate of 8-10 bpm
b) it should be used with positive end-expiratory pressure
c) all breaths are triggered by the patient
d) it is synchronised to the patient’s expiration
e) it gives an abnormal end tidal CO2 result

30. A pressure cycled ventilator:

a) is a minute volume divider
b) is often cycled from expiration to inspiration by time
c) is cycled from inspiration to expiration after a set time
d) has end-expiratory pressure determined by the patient’s compliance
e) ventilates a patient more efficiently with obstructive airways disease if operated at low flows

31. Concerning exponential decay:

a) ½ time constant equals a half life
b) 3 x time constant equals 97%
c) the rate of change is proportional to the quantity at a certain time
d) at one time constant, 37% remains
e) the time constant is the time at which the process would have been complete, had the initial rate of change continued



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