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You are in Home >> Exams >> Final FRCA >> Final FRCA SAQ/MCQ


Created: 6/7/2004
1. The following increase intraocular pressure in the normal eye:

a) hypercarbia
b) acetazolamide
c) atropine
d) hypotension
e) respiratory obstruction

2. Intraluminal gastrointestinal pressure is increased by:

a) nitrous oxide anaesthesia
b) epidural block to T6
c) neostigmine
d) morphine
e) adrenaline

3. In the elderly:

a) systolic hypertension is common
b) ventilatory response to CO2 is normal
c) PaO2 is lower than in young adults
d) upper airway reflexes are impaired
e) postoperative analgesic requirements are increased

4. In one lung anaesthesia, PaO2 depends on:

a) the amount of blood flowing through the non-ventilated lung
b) FiO2
c) intraoperative haematocrit
d) cardiac output
e) mixed venous oxygen tension

5. Regarding bupivacaine:

a) it causes cardiac toxicity before convulsions
b) more than 50% is ionised at physiological pH
c) more than 20% is excreted unchanged
d) it is less potent than prilocaine
e) it crosses the placenta more slowly than lidocaine

6. For the same amount of lidocaine (mg), a greater segmental block is achieved:

a) in the pregnant near term
b) in the elderly
c) with higher concentration
d) with rapid injection
e) with addition of 1:200,000 adrenaline

7. Regarding epidural opioids:

a) less than 2-3% morphine crosses into the CSF
b) pethidine crosses into the CSF faster than morphine
c) prior injection of local anaesthetic decreases the amount of morphine that crosses into the CSF
d) relatively more diamorphine gains access to the systemic circulation than morphine
e) delayed respiratory depression does not occur with the very fat soluble opioids

8. Regarding spinal anaesthesia:

a) the spinal cord terminates at L4
b) barbotage increases the spread of subsequent block
c) aqueous 0.5% bupivacaine is hyperbaric
d) bradycardia may be treated with IV metaraminol
e) high block impairs the ability to cough

9. The management of air embolism during posterior fossa surgery may include:

a) positioning the patient on the right side
b) administration of mannitol
c) raising cerebral venous pressure
d) discontinuation of nitrous oxide
e) rapid infusion of fluid

10. Regional cerebral metabolism is increased by:

a) halothane
b) mannitol
c) pain
d) ketamine
e) sodium thiopentone

11. Regarding the flow-directed multi-lumen PA catheter:

a) the thermistor is situated 20 cm from the tip
b) pulmonary capillary wedge is a small bronchopulmonary segment
c) cardiac estimations can be performed by pressure measurement
d) an open central lumen when balloon is inflated protects against distal infarction
e) it is more accurate when inserted via the internal jugular vein than via the subclavian

12. Helium:

a) is less viscous than oxygen
b) is stored as a liquid in cylinders
c) is used to decrease the work of breathing in bronchospasm
d) changes the voice
e) supports combustion

13. Regarding ankylosing spondylitis:

a) it is more common in females than males after the age of 40
b) it is associated with bilateral hip arthropathy
c) it is associated with iritis
d) low grade pyrexia may be present
e) may present with sciatica

14. Regarding the trachea:

a) the only blood supply is from the bronchial arteries
b) it starts at C4
c) it ends at T5
d) it is lined by transitional epithelium
e) it is 1.5 - 2 cm wide in the adult

15. Minimum alveolar concentration:

a) is greater in men than women
b) decreases with age
c) is lower in the neonate compared with a 2 year old
d) is lower in pregnancy
e) is decreased with acute alcohol intoxication

16. Spinal versus general anaesthesia for repair of fracture of neck of femur:

a) decreases mortality
b) reduced hospital stay
c) decreases the incidence of thromboembolism
d) provides better immediate postoperative pain relief
e) decreases intraoperative blood loss

17. Regarding the Severinghaus electrode:

a) the electrolyte is sodium bicarbonate
b) it has CO2 sensitive glass
c) it is affected by temperature
d) it is more accurate for blood than gas sample anaylsis
e) it is affected by nitrous oxide

18. In arterial blood gases:

a) the respiratory quotient is affected by parenteral nutrition
b) (A-a) O2 at FiO2 1 is less than 15 kPa normally
c) more than usual amounts of heparin increase pH
d) mixed venous pH is equal to arterial pH
e) dissolved oxygen increases with hypothermia

19. In the anabolic phase after surgery:

a) calories should be supplied in a ratio of 150:1 g nitrogen
b) there is formation of 30 g protein per day
c) potassium excretion increases
d) tissue fats are mobilised

20. ACE inhibitors cause:

a) cough
b) sodium and water retention
c) vasodilation
d) tachycardia

21. In the anterior interscalene approach to the brachial plexus:

a) it is performed at C6 level
b) interscalene groove is accentuated by deep inspiration
c) Horner’s syndrome is essential for a successful block
d) total spinal anaesthesia may result
e) pneumothorax is rare

22. In a 2 year old child:

a) the narrowest point of the trachea is the cricoid ring
b) fluid requirements are 100 ml/kg/day
c) blood volume is 50 ml/kg
d) chest wall compliance is decreased compared with the adult
e) there is increased platelet function

23. In a patient with untreated megaloblastic anaemia:

a) histamine-fast achlorhydria is always present
b) urine methyl malonate is increased
c) there is an association with gastric cancer
d) resection of ileal loops for Crohn’s disease may be a causative factor
e) serum B12 levels may be normal

24. Prolonged exposure to 50% nitrous oxide for 3 days causes:

a) megaloblastic marrow change
b) peripheral neuropathy
c) lymphopenia
d) decreased methionine synthetase activity
e) increased sensitivity to suxamethonium

25. Glycosuria may occur:

a) in pregnancy
b) in phaeochromocytoma
c) in hypopituitarism
d) in partial gastrectomy
e) after subarachnoid haemorrhage

26. Hypothyroidsm is associated with:

a) supraventricular tachycardia
b) slow relaxation of tendon reflexes
c) low serum cholesterol
d) high serum protein-bound iodine

27. Regarding the radial nerve:

a) it supplies the extensor compartment of the forearm
b) damage is associated with sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the forearm only
c) damage is associated with alcoholism
d) it can be damaged by pressure on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus

28. Tissues which can rapidly regenerate after damage include:

a) hepatocytes
b) renal glomerular cells
c) anterior horn cells
d) aortic smooth muscle
e) epithelial cells at the edge of a peptic ulcer

29. A drug that blocks dopamine receptors only will:

a) be anti-arrhythmic
b) decrease renal perfusion
c) improve gut blood flow
d) improve Parkinson’s disease
e) prevent motion sickness

30. Goldman criteria include:

a) previous cardiac surgery
b) mitral valve disease
c) hypertension
d) atrial fibrillation
e) previous myocardial infarction

31. APACHE II utilises:

a) emergency surgery
b) haemoglobin
c) admission after cardiac arrest
d) (A – a) O2

32. Coarctation of the aorta:

a) is usually preductal
b) is associated with cerebral aneurysms
c) may be associated with differential cyanosis
d) may need left heart bypass during correction
e) is repaired via a right thoracotomy

33. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation:

a) lidocaine should be given before adrenaline in ventricular fibrillation
b) DC cardioversion with 50 J is the treatment of choice for ventricular tachycardia
c) adrenaline 0.5 mg should be given via endotracheal tube
d) 50 ml 8.4% bicarbonate should be given every 10 minutes
e) IV calcium is indicated for patients on dialysis

34. Hypercalcaemia can be caused by:

a) vitamin D deficiency
b) vitamin D intoxication
c) decreased serum calcitonin
d) primary hyperparathyroidism
e) oral potassium chelators

35. Alkaline phosphatase is increased in:

a) osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease)
b) multiple chondromata
c) hyperparathyroidism
d) prostatic carcinoma in situ
e) liver disease

36. Creatinine phosphokinase:

a) is raised 24 hours after myocardial infarction
b) untreated hyperthyroidism
c) osteomalacia
d) duchenne muscular dystrophy
e) myasthenia gravis

37. Serum sodium 125 mmol/L and serum potassium 6.25 mmol/L can be found in:

a) renal failure
b) Addison’s disease
c) hypoaldosteronism
d) liver tension
e) potassium deficiency

38. Serum urea of 20 mmol/L is consistent with:

a) dehydration
b) A gastrointestinal tract bleed
c) severe hepatic impairment

39. Atrophy of the tongue occurs in:

a) myotonia
b) syringobulbia
c) pseudobulbar palsy
d) Parkinson’s disease
e) Multiple sclerosis

40. Metabolic acidosis is present in:

a) renal failure
b) respiratory acidosis
c) ureterocolic anastomosis
d) severe vomiting
e) diarrhoea

41. In the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis:

a) small volumes of concentrated urine are produced
b) there is hyperkalaemia
c) there is malignant hypertension
d) there is a progressively rising ventral venous pressure
e) there is a raised serum urea with a normal serum creatinine



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