42. In severe hepatocellular failure:
a) albumin levels are low
b) fibrinogen levels are low
c) prothrombin time is shortened
d) plasma sodium levels are raised
e) bilirubin is raised
43. In severe hepatic impairment, drug pharmacokinetics are altered by:
a) decreased protein binding
b) change in body fluid compartments
c) competition for protein binding sites with toxins
d) increased lipid solubility of the drug itself
e) decreased albumin levels
44. Regarding gentamicin vestibular toxicity:
a) it is reversible
b) it is more common in the elderly
c) it does not occur after oral ingestion
d) caloric tests are normal
e) it is more likely to occur with liver disease
45. In the diagnosis of brain stem death:
a) consultation with a neurologist is needed
b) an EEG must be flat for 24 hours
c) convulsions preempt the diagnosis
d) spinal reflexes may be present
e) blood must be sent for drug screening
46. Warming blood to 37 degrees C during massive blood transfusion:
a) decreases the risk of citrate toxicity
b) increases plasma potassium concentration
c) increases plasma carbon dioxide tension
d) decreases the incidence of arrhythmia
e) increases CO2 buffering capacity of cells
47. Percutaneous absorption occurs with:
a) atropine
b) hyoscine
c) morphine
d) fentanyl
e) paracetamol
48. Salicylate overdose is associated with:
a) fibrinolysis
b) hypothermia
c) respiratory acidosis
d) polyuric renal failure
e) massive gastric bleeding
49. Non-steroidal analgesic agents:
a) can be given intrathecally
b) cause thrombocytopenia
c) block prostaglandin synthetase
d) cannot be used in gastrointestinal tract disease
50. Regarding stellate ganglion block:
a) it causes deafness
b) it may cause phrenic nerve paralysis
c) oesophageal perforation may occur
d) a vasovagal reaction may occur during its performance
e) if successful, it causes a change in skin resistance on stimulation
51. You are asked to attend to a woman, 30 minutes after delivery, who is fitting. The causes for this may be:
a) eclampsia
b) local anaesthetic toxicity
c) grand mal epilepsy
d) hyperventilation
e) cerebral thrombosis
52. Malignancy is associated with:
a) familial polyposis coli
b) ulcerative colitis
c) villous papilloma
d) chronic constipation
e) chronic diverticulitis
53. Regarding the measurement of an anaesthetic agent:
a) infrared measurement is agent specific
b) mass spectrometry is not agent specific
c) nitrous oxide interferes with paramagnetic analysers
d) acoustics can be used for measurement
e) infrared analysers pick up isopropyl alcohol
54. Risks of electrocution are decreased by:
a) conductive flooring
b) the use of fuses
c) the use of isolating transformers
d) the use of battery power
e) each part of the apparatus being attached to separate earth sockets
55. Haematuria may occur in:
a) rheumatic fever
b) bacterial endocarditis
c) hydronephrosis
d) prostatic hypertrophy
e) acute glomerulonephritis
56. The following increase lower oesophageal sphincter tone:
a) metoclopramide
b) atropine
c) cisapride
d) domperidone
e) morphine
57. Inhalation of gastric contents will produce:
a) pulmonary oedema
b) bronchoconstriction
c) left ventricular failure
d) hypovolaemia
e) reduced activity of surfactant
58. Muscle relaxant reversal may be difficult in the presence of:
a) hyperkalaemia
b) fentanyl overdose
c) hypermagnesaemia
d) hypocapnia
e) acidosis
59. Extrapyramidal effects can be seen following:
a) chlorpropamide
b) terfenadine
c) metoclopramide
d) domperidone
e) perphenazine
60. The following statements are true:
a) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be examined if a brain tumour is suspected
b) CSF is characteristically normal in trigeminal neuralgia
c) CSF protein greater than 1.5 g may be found in motor neurone disease
d) CSF protein is raised in untreated meningococcal meningitis
e) CSF cell count is increased in Guillain-Barre syndrome
61. Treatment for epilepsy includes:
a) ethosuximide
b) sodium valproate
c) clonazepam
62. Lung compliance is increased in:
a) the presence of intra-alveolar fluid
b) acute respiratory distress syndrome
c) idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
d) emphysema
e) fibrosing alveolitis
63. In a pregnant woman at term:
a) tidal volume is increased
b) functional residual capacity is increased
c) physiological dead space is decreased
d) total vital capacity is reduced
e) airway resistance is reduced
64. Suxamethonium significantly increases serum potassium concentration in:
a) quadriplegia
b) myasthenic syndrome
c) malignant hyperpyrexia
d) adrenocortical insufficiency
e) tetanus
65. Coeliac plexus block:
a) can be used to relieve pain from intra-abdominal malignancy
b) may cause orthostatic hypotension
c) may cause diarrhoea
d) can be used to treat pain in acute pancreatitis
e) causes constriction of the sphincter of Oddi
66. Breathing 10% oxygen in nitrogen in a fit individual causes:
a) central cyanosis
b) increased cardiac output
c) reduced stroke volume
d) reduced mixed venous oxygen content
e) angina pain
67. The use of oral antibiotics in the preparation for colonic surgery may cause:
a) fungal infection of the bowel
b) diarrhoea
c) fulminant enterocolitis
d) altered response to muscle relaxants
e) hepatic failure
68. A raised reticulocyte count is found in:
a) untreated pernicious anaemia
b) aplitic anaemia
c) untreated iron deficiency anaemia
d) chronic lymphocytic anaemia
e) congenital spherocytic anaemia
69. Regarding a prolapsed disc at L5 – S1:
a) it is associated withscoliosis
b) it is associated with loss of sensation on the medial side of the right calf
c) it is associated with loss of knee jerk
d) onset of urinary incontinence requires urgent surgical treatment
e) a plaster cast is the treatment of choice
70. Ulcerative colitis is associated with:
a) cirrhosis
b) cholangitis
c) clubbing
d) iritis
e) arthritis
71. Neuropraxia:
a) is more common after long operations
b) does not occur with local anaesthetics
c) does not occur with muscle relaxants
d) only occurs when previous neuropathy is present
e) takes a long time to recover
72. Ritodrine can cause:
a) bradycardia
b) heart block
c) left ventricular failure
d) hypotension
e) peripheral vasoconstriction
73. Pressure cycled ventilators:
a) are minute volume dividers
b) are cycled from inspiration to expiration after a set time
c) may be cycled from expiration to inspiration after a set time
d) have an end-expiratory pressure determined by the patient’s compliance
e) ventilate a patient with chronic airways obstructive disease better if operated at low flows
f) are not associated with a risk of barotrauma
74. In the elimination of drugs:
a) alkalinisation of urine enhances elimination of weak acids
b) oxidation increases elimination of polar compounds
c) glucuronidation occurs at the microsomal level
d) terminal half life determines drug dose intervals
e) a decrease in glomerular filtration rate reduces gentamicin excretion
75. In a circle anaesthetic system:
a) the soda lime canister should be equal in volume to the patient’s tidal volume
b) the system will function satisfactorily with a single one-way valve
c) if a vaporiser is put in the circle, it should be placed between the inspiratory limb and the fresh gas flow
d) the volume of the reservoir bag is not critical
e) the adjustable pressure limiting valve should be placed between the expiratory limb and the soda lime
76. Concerning intermittent positive pressure ventilation and airway pressures:
a) peak inspiratory pressure decreases if there is a leak
b) a pneumothorax increases peak and plateau pressures
c) there is an increase in peak pressure with a decrease in compliance
d) bronchial constriction causes a rise in plateau pressure
e) peak pressures are high in obstructive airway disease
77. Concerning intra-arterial pressure transducers:
a) the natural resonant frequency may be determined by square waves at 25 Hz via the intraflow system
b) they are best used with long narrow catheters
c) a resonant frequency of 10 Hz is ideal
d) mean pressure is not affected by damping
e) optimum damping occurs at 5 times the resonant frequency
78. The following may attenuate the pressor response to intubation:
a) ACE inhibitors
b) calcium antagonists
c) intravenous lidocaine
d) a large dose of induction agent
e) beta-blockers
79. Regarding syncope:
a) the most common cause is cardiovascular disease
b) there may be an association with bradycardia
c) it may be preceded by a loss of vision
d) it is due to a fall in cardiac output
e) it may be indirectly caused by urinary retention
80. Diplopia may occur in:
a) myasthenia gravis
b) retrobulbar neuritis
c) cerebellar hemisphere disease
d) Horner’s syndrome
81. A Wright’s respirometer:
a) is essentially a turbine
b) is affected by viscosity
c) is temperature compensated
d) is accurate at flows of <1 litre per minute
e) over-reads at high flows
82. In the management of the amitryptiline overdose, the following may be useful:
a) digitalisation
b) beta-blockers
c) alkaline diuresis
d) atropine
e) isoprenaline infusion
83. Infant respiratory distress syndrome:
a) usually occurs within 12 hours of birth
b) is more common after caesarean section
c) has a better prognosis if steroids are given to the infant
d) is uncommon after 36 weeks' gestation
e) is more common in multiple pregnancies
84. The coeliac ganglion is:
a) in front of L3
b) on the crura
c) behind the pancreas
d) behind the inferior vena cava
e) in front of the aorta
85. Factors leading to hypothermia include:
a) vasodilation
b) exposure of abdominal contents
c) neuromuscular blockers
d) spinal anaesthesia
e) dry gases
86. In endotracheal tubes:
a) pressure is inversely related to length in laminar flow
b) irregularities within the tube increase resistance
c) at angled connectors, turbulence increases as gas flow rate increases
d) in laminar flow, the pressure drop along the tube is linearly related to length
87. TENS:
a) works via A fibres
b) is useful for peripheral nerve injuries
c) is useful for thalamic pain
d) uses voltages of 0 to 50 volts
e) uses frequencies of 1 to 100 Hz
88. Intravenous guanethidine:
a) is useful in sympathetic dystrophy
b) works on the parasympathetic system
c) can be repeated
d) requires the tourniquet to be applied for an hour
e) causes hypotension
ANSWERS
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ArticleDate:20050216
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