Search our site 
 
Advanced Search
 
Home | Exam dates | Contact us | About us | Testimonials |
 
 

map
You are in Home >> Exams >> Primary FRCA >> Primary MCQ 1

General Primary MCQ 3

Created: 30/11/2005

 
Click here to access the interactive examination centre

1. Hyponatraemia:

a) may increase intracellular fluid volume
b) may be seen in syndrome of Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
c) may increase the secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide
d) may increase the plasma osmolality
e) of acute onset may be associated with cerebral oedema

2. Adrenaline:

a) can be nebulised
b) is a bronchodilator
c) may elevate the blood sugar
d) has an almost equal effect on both alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors
e) tracheal administration of adrenaline should be used even in presence of IV access during cardiopulmonary resuscitation

3. Heparin:

a) has a molecular weight between 3,000-60,000 daltons
b) acts by binding to antithrombin III
c) has antiplatelet activity
d) prolongs the prothrombin time
e) has a shorter duration of action than low molecular weight heparin

4. Glycopyrrolate:

a) can act at central cholinergic receptors
b) can increase the physiological dead space
c) can dilate the pupil
d) is equally effective when given orally
e) is five times more potent as an antisialagogue than atropine

5. Isoprenaline:

a) can be given by mouth
b) is absorbed from the sublingual route
c) causes complete heart block
d) has more beta than alpha effect on the heart
e) antagonises the action of phentolamine

6. In an awake upright spontaneously breathing patient:

a) ventilation per unit lung volume is smallest at the apex of lungs
b) basal alveoli are smaller
c) basal alveoli expand more than apical alveoli during inspiration
d) pleural pressure is less negative at the base of the lungs

7. Regarding nitrates:

a) they are nitric oxide donors
b) they increase the level of intracellular cyclic GMP
c) they have an onset of action faster than that of sodium nitroprusside
d) they may cause methaemoglobinaemia
e) tolerance may develop

8. Ephedrine:

a) shows tachyphylaxis due to downregulation of beta receptors
b) readily crosses the blood-brain barrier
c) releases noradrenaline at sympathetic nerve endings
d) has both alpha and beta effects
e) reduces placental blood flow

9. In a normal healthy man at rest in the supine position:

a) left ventricular end-diastolic volume is about 20 ml
b) the first heart sound coincides with the onset of ventricular systole
c) cardiac output is approximately 75 ml/beat
d) left ventricular end-diastolic pressure is about 5 mmHg
e) the second heart sound coincides with the end of the T wave of the ECG

10. The rate of diffusion of a gas (Fick’s Law) across a membrane:

a) is directly proportional to the area
b) is directly proportional to the partial pressure gradient
c) is inversely proportional to thickness of the membrane
d) is directly proportional to molecular weight
e) is inversely proportional to the density of the gas

11. Third generation beta-adrenergic blockers:

a) include celiprolol and dilevalol
b) block the beta-1 receptors
c) stimulate beta-2 receptors
d) appear well tolerated in asthmatics
e) may reduce juxtaglomerular renin release by beta-1 blockade

12. Methaemoglobinaemia:

a) may be caused by prilocaine
b) may be beneficial in cyanide toxicity
c) is effectively treated by methylene blue
d) will not change the partial pressure of oxygen in blood
e) is seen in carbon monoxide poisoning

13. Concerning the ABO blood groups:

a) a person of group O is a universal recipient
b) a person of group B always has anti-A agglutinins in his plasma
c) in an incompatible blood transfusion reaction, donor cells are lysed by recipient antibodies
d) disseminated intravascular coagulation may be a clue to mismatched transfusion
e) a saline cross-matching takes 10 minutes to perform

14. Aspirin at the therapeutic dose:

a) inactivates the platelet cyclo-oxygenase system temporarily
b) causes sweating by a direct action on the post-ganglionic nerves
c) acts in fever to reset the central thermostat
d) will not antagonise the hyperthermia of exercise
e) does not alter the requirement of heparin for anticoagulation

15. Oral anti-coagulant treatment:

a) may be teratogenic in early pregnancy
b) can cause haemorrhagic foetal death in the third trimester
c) precludes breast feeding
d) predisposes to particular hazards in patients undergoing prostatectomy
e) is best withdrawn 5 days before elective surgery

16. Haemaccel:

a) is a derivative of starch
b) has an average molecular weight of 35,000 daltons
c) is equally distributed throughout the extracellular fluid
d) has a half life of 8 hours
e) is hypotonic

17. Regarding blood transfusions:

a) they may result in hypercalcaemia
b) in an emergency, it is safe to give O+ blood to an O-ve patient
c) they are contraindicated in head injury
d) they may result in consumption coagulopathy
e) when rapid will often cause hyperthermia

18. The haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve is moved to the left by:

a) ascending to 6000 feet over 24 hours
b) carbon monoxide
c) frozen red cells
d) bovine haemoglobin
e) anaemia

19. Amiodarone:

a) prolongs the action potential duration in the SA node
b) prolongs repolarisation in the AV node
c) may cause photosensitivity
d) may have effect on thyroid function on long-term treatment
e) slows conduction velocity in His-Purkinjee system

20. Enzyme induction:

a) occurs in both hepatic and extrahepatic tissues
b) develops within 5 days of administration of an inducing agent
c) is usually brought about by lipid-insoluble substances with a short half-life
d) enables the body to adapt to varying exposure to foreign compounds
e) can be a cause of loss of anticoagulant control

21. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure will be greater than left ventricular end diastolic pressure in the following situations:

a) presence of mitral valve prosthesis
b) positive end-expiratory pressure during mechanical ventilation
c) catheter tip in Zone I
d) non-compliant left ventricle
e) mitral stenosis

22. Third generation cephalosporins:

a) in general are active against gram +ve cocci
b) in general are active against Escherichia coli, Klebsiella and Proteus mirabilis
c) may be nephrotoxic in combination with aminoglycosides
d) may have disulfiram like action
e) is the drug of choice for prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis

23. Compared with intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid has:

a) a greater osmolarity
b) a higher protein concentration
c) a lower chloride ion concentration
d) a lower hydrogen ion concentration
e) a lower potassium ion concentration

24. With reference to the normal human heart:

a) the most rapidly conducting fibres in the heart are the Purkinje fibres
b) the last part of the ventricle to be activated is the apex
c) the duration of an action potential in a ventricular muscle fibre is about the same as in a skeletal muscle fibre
d) the T wave of the ECG occurs at the beginning of the absolute refractory period of the ventricle
e) left axis deviation leads to abnormally large R wave in Standard Limb Lead I

25. Concerning dopamine receptors:

a) D1 receptors are present in renal and mesenteric blood vessels
b) D1 receptors in renal tubules may induce natriuresis
c) D1 receptor stimulation may lead to renin release
d) D2 receptors are present in the nigrostriatal pathway
e) fenoldapam selectively acts on D1 receptors

26. Pulmonary vascular resistance

a) is increased at high altitude
b) is decreased by a low pH
c) can be measured using a flow-directed balloon catheter
d) is increased by isoprenaline
e) is decreased by 5-HT

27. A plasma sodium concentration of 120 mmol/L may be a consequence of:

a) Conn’s syndrome
b) prolonged unconsciousness
c) analgesic-induced nephropathy
d) diabetes insipidus
e) acutely decreased renal blood flow

28. Factors determining urinary sodium loss include:

a) plasma sodium concentration
b) glomerular filtration rate
c) circulating renin levels
d) distal tubular fluid anion concentration
e) plasma hydrogen ion concentration

29. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP):

a) is released via coronary sinus
b) is a potent vasodilator
c) improves renal blood flow
d) increases the glomerular filteration rate
e) may augment the release of antidiuretic hormone

30. Excitatory amino acids:

a) include aspartate and glutamate
b) act on NMDA, kainate and quisqualate receptors
c) may induce uncontrolled sodium and calcium influx to the cell
d) can be antagonised by ketamine
e) may potentiate pain transmission
 

ANSWERS 

1.TTTFT a)see p.680, Kumar and Clark: fall in ECF osmolality causes H2O to move into cells.
2.TTTTF
3.FTTTT a) most texts quote max MW of 40,000 d) in high doses, PT is prolonged.
4.FTTFT c) hence use with caution in glaucoma.
5.TTFTF
6.TTTT
7.TTFTT
8.FTTTF
9.FTTTT
10.TTTFF
11.TTTTT
12.TTTTF
13.FTTTF
14.FFTTT
15.TTFTF
16.FTFFF
17.FTFTF
18.FTTTF
19.TTTTT
20.TFFTT
21.TTTFT
22.TTTTF
23.FFFTT
24.TFFFF
25.TTTTT
26.TFTFF
27.FFTFF
28.TTTTF
29.FTTTF
30.TTTTT


ArticleDate:20051130
SiteSection: Article
 
   
    
                                            
  Posting rules

     To view or add comments you must be a registered user and login  




Login Status  

You are not currently logged in.
UK/Ireland Registration
Overseas Registration

  Forgot your password?








 
All rights reserved © 2017. Designed by AnaesthesiaUK.

{Site map} {Site disclaimer} {Privacy Policy} {Terms and conditions}

 Like us on Facebook 

vp